Posted By Marie Dolman An employee working on our assembly line went home sick on Monday 26th November, stating that she'd hurt her back when lifting a cable reel the previous Tuesday (20th) and it was now causing her some pain. She didn't report the incident to anyone until the 26th as "it didn't feel too bad at the time". If her sick leave eventually totals that of a reportable incident, should I report it as there is no proof that she injured herself at work? ie. no accident report, record in the accident book, consultation with a first aider or witnesses. I would appreciate any comments and thanks in advance for your help. Marie.

Posted By Paul Craythorne Ken, I agree with the previous posting. You should discharge your legal obligation by reporting under RIDDOR but ensure that the delay of notification and absence of internal reporting is clearly noted in your RIDDOR report. You will not be admitting liability by reporting this. It is quite liekly that the employee has been 'Got At' and is now preparing the ground for a claim. It may not even have occurred at work but this type of deceit goes on all too regularly. You may wish to consider some formal action against the employee for failure to follow company procedures (assuming you can prove that they were aware of them). This may sound a bit harsh but sends a clear message to other employees to follow procedures and may be useful for the company's defence. Sorry if I sound a bit cynical but many years of dealing with claims have helped me to sort the bogus from the genuine. Regards, Paul

Posted By Ken Taylor Whilst Paul may well be right in 9 cases out of 10, I think it only fair to point out that there are those among us who 'soldier on' bravely not telling anybody until things get so bad they have to admit what's happened. The present case will be a matter for careful consideration by all concerned - who will be familiar with the person, job, workplace, culture, etc.