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Posted By David P. Johnson
You have a job with a company that stipulate in the Job Description you must be CMIOSH, GradOSH or TechIOSH.
The IOSH Code of Conduct requires that "members must comply with the institutions CPD scheme, if required to do so." (Point 4 of the Code of Conduct).
The employers risk assessment has therefore determined that the level of competence required for the position requires to you maintain your membership at its current grade at a minimum.
Could it not be construed that they have a contractual obligation to assist you in completing CPD, both financially and in terms of resources?
Could the need to source competent, resourced advice under MHSWR not offer this argument any credibility?
Thoughts/views welcomed.
DJ
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Posted By Philip McAleenan
David,
The control measure may stipulate the level of competence required to undertake the task. If additional training/instruction/guided work is require to bring an employee up to the stipulated level of competence, the employer must ensure that it is provided. The employer may choose to specify a particular route to competence and fund this, but it is the end result, namely the defined competence, that is important, and if there are alternative routes for the employer and employee to choose from, any may equally be chosen, based on cost, quality etc.
On the other hand, membership of IOSH is exactly that, membership; not a competence. It would be inappropriate for a risk assessment to conclude that membership is a necessary requirement to control a work operation. Those who are competent to carry out the work can freely choose to be a member of IOSH, or not without their competence being in any way affected.
In your scenario I would suggest that that R/A be re-examined and essential controls developed and implemented.
Furthermore, if membership is desirable requirement for the post, the employer is free to choose to fund or not the CPD element. However, to make is a necessary requirement for the post may be considered a restrictive practice by any applicant competent for the post but who has freely chosen not to be a member of IOSH.
Regards, Philip
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Posted By Merv Newman
If the employer has stipulated CMIOSH, then they should (or must be led to) understand that CPD is a requirement of maintaining that level of qualification. And, if possible, persuaded to underwrite the necessary expenses - including the annual subscription fee.
This said, I am a very strong believer in CPD. Two-yearly assessment or not, if my employer pays or not, I know that I MUST continue to learn my trade.
Twice in my career as a consultant I have recommended to management that the "safety person" be replaced, as they have learned nothing since their original training.
I dare you to let me audit your site. (well, maybe an aberlor, (no ice) might influence my evaluation of your competence)(not a lot, mind you. It has been tried)
Merv (I'm a consultant. Trust in me)
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
David
This is a cultural and psychological issue rather than a legal one.
Interesting how you frame your question in terms of 'HR' and proceed to ask 'could it not be construed that they have a contractual obligation to assist you in completing CPD, both financially and in terms of resources?'
As a chartered fellow of the CIPD and chartered occupational psychologist, I start by observing that the job description is at fault in specifying that you must have any specific professional status; the function of a job description is simply to describe the essential and desired elements of a job. It is simply in the person specification that identifying CMIOSH, etc. may be relevant - though I would very strongly advocate that it is much more appropriate to identity the core competencies both strategic and operational(which may or may not have occurred in the case you indicate).
Assuming that the HR folk are sufficiently analytical to specify the core competencies required in every role in your organisation, what you suggest may be construed - and equally, the opposite may be construed! It is a matter matter of business negotiation whether the obligation is legally contractual. It is a cultural matter, to do with company values, that the obligation is part of the 'psychological contract', i.e. a resonable expectation on your part.
If you wish to get to grips with the logic and psychology behind the principles of governance involved in this distinction, you'll find excellent guidance in the publications of Chris Argyris, Professor of Organisational Psychology formerly at Harvard and, I believe, more recently at Yale, from 1964 onwards. The thrust of his work is that employers fare much better by cultvating learning,competence and justice than any other strategy; in 'Overcoming Organizational Defenses. Facilitating Organizational Learning', (Prentice Hall, 1990), he explains the systematic errors made by senior management that thwarts their organisations achieve the goals they profess to
aim at. Not for the faint-hearted but a lucid, incisive analysis of why safety and many other legitimate goals are systematically under-funded and haven't the chance of the proverbial snowball in the Hot Place.
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Posted By Adrian Watson
Dear David,
If your job specification is part of your contract of employment then both you and your employer have obligations; your obligation is to maintain the status required of you in your job specification and it is your employers obligation not to prevent you meeting that obligation. This means that whilst they do not have to pay for training, they should allow you some time to keep up to date.
However, even if your employer won't pay then your training costs should be claimable against your income tax.
Regards Adrian Watson.
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Posted By Jim Walker
My employer pays for these courses under their committment to the three
management systems (QA, H&S, Env)as they are considered to be "continual
improvements".
Further, during my last CPD cycle at least 50% of my points DID NOT involve attendeing courses or any other activity that involved money. ie if you have been exposed to a new experience that counts, personal (in depth) study counts.
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Posted By George Wedgwood
Being practical and a recruiter of H&S employees in my company, I naturally want to attract people with good relevant experience (first requirement) I also recognise that qualifications are important to help demonstrate that the person has intelligence and the ability to learn and meet external criteria. I also want the cheapest I can get for the boss! As a part of the 'unwritten' contract of employment, applicants are told that CPD will be important and the company will ensure this is made available to them - and they should commit to the IOSH CPD scheme. They are also told that progression towards 'recognition' is also important and that if suitable, they should be able to undetake further study for formal qualifications to uliimately meet the recognised criteria for a competent person - a professional H&S practitioner - CMIOSH (as publicly stated by the HSE at a recent Stakeholder Conference). So that is the goal - to have competent pratitioners advising management how best to control risk and assisting with the implementation. We should also fund that for them on a basic 'agreement' that funds are repayable if they leave within a year of completion. Practcially, I would rather have A TechSP with the required experience and ensure that person gets the training in our environment as the practical aspect of practitioner input is so important. Yes, I said 'practitioner' and we have some good ones in our company and I see them all as professionals despite the range of qualifications! However, if I want a detailed DSEAR assessment carried out, I will always seek out a MIOSH chemical engineer to help as I know that such competence is worth every penny! As for embedding such requirements into written contracts of employment, I think that is not necessary but do make the commitment to train employees - it pays dividends. And if they are treated properly, they won't leave!
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