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I am very stuck on a Law issue (your daily test :)
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Posted By Jasonjg
This is probably really simple but trust me, my head is battered by it at the moment (maybe it is just too early for me to digest the info).
Breach of Statutory Duty = a civil action can be taken if it is shown that there was a breach of a statutory duty along with other tests i.e. strict liability etc. That’s fair enough, I can grasp that.
I am stuck on the part where the HSWA 1974 excludes this for sections 2-8 as it seems it limits ones ability to claim and he is forced down the negligence route only if his employer was charged under section 2 of HSWA 1974.
So If I was charged under section 2 in statute, does this mean any civil commences would have to just go for negligence rather than the double barrel action because only section 2 breach was mentioned in court even though it may have been due to a breach of a regulation that the company was charged.
Do you need to have been convicted of a statutory duty to be civil liable for breach of statutory duty or is guilt of statutory breach also decided in civil court?.
If convicted under section 2, can a civil case lawyer choose any of the statutory regulations in relation to the case to make a case of breach of statutory duty i.e. Management regs.
So all in all after that waffle, what statute does most civil cases refer to when handling claims for employees in a breach of a statutory duty case?, and are they then stuck if employer is has only breached section 2 HSWA 1974?.
I am aware of Occupiers Liability act but does that protect employees or just visitors.
Thanks for any help
Once I understand this part I have almost grasped it (I thinks :)
Jason
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Posted By Jos
My understanding is that an injured individual can make a civil claim for either a breach of common law duty of care (usually negligence) or a breach of statutory duty, e.g, failing to protect a young person under the management regs.
Where a regulation or piece of legislation is designed to protect an individual (e.g., pregnant worker, young person etc) rather than the workforce as a whole, and the regulation allows it, it can be used for civil claims as a breach of statutory duty if the company has not complied with the particular regulation and the breach has caused the injury or damage.
So an injured person could possibly. 1) Claim for a breach of common law duty of care. 2. claim for a breach of statutory duty under a specific piece of legislation that should have protected that person
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Posted By Jasonjg
Thanks Jos
Yes I understand that part,
It is when a company has been charged under section 2 of HSWA 1974. Does that now mean that the plaintiff is now restricted from claiming Breach of a statutory duty because Section 2 does not give this ability. So in effect he can only go the other route i.e. negligence.
Or would a plaintiff be able to claim a breach of a statutory duty even though the company was not charged with it i.e. he could claim via managment regs failure.
To me the Breach of the statutory duty looks like the best option but this is restricted by sections 2-8 HSWA 1974. I am finding it hard to understand why such restrictions are in place.
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
The tests for a civil claim to be successful require that
The defendant owed a duty
The defendant was in breach of the duty
The injury arose as a result of the breach.
A breach of a statutory duty essentially jumps the first two hurdles if it is successful but still not the third.
The argument from my hazy recollection was that the statements of 2-8 were couched in terms of general duties which in themselves did not clearly state the duties more clearly than does the common law duty of care statement. - We have a duty, whether by act or ommission, not to injure our fellow human.
Redgraves, 4th edition, section 2.22 et seq. provides a very detailed analysis of the terminology and application. Whilst 2-8 cannot be directly used statutes which support them can create a statutory duty where there is injury to a person provided it is a class of injury which the statute is designed to protect persons from. The breach then gives rise to a breach of statutory duty.
The tests are thus, abbreviated:
The regulations properly construed was designed to protect specific classes of person , of whom the plaintiff was one
The provision had been broken
The injury was of a kind that the statute was intended to give protection against
The injury arose out of the breach
It is a bit of a red herring to talk of strict liability in this context.
Bob
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Posted By Jasonjg
Thank you very much Robert
I think I was after clarification that a plaintiff could choose whether or not he/she could use the Breach of a Statutory Duty route.
Obviously his/her choice would have to fit with the tests you mentioned.
What was throwing me off was the fact that Sections 2-8 HSWA are deemed non-usuable but regulations are unless specified otherwise.
I was worried that should a company have been charged solely with section 2, 3, or 4, and then this automatically restricts the Breach of a Statutory Duty claim. But now I am thinking why does it matter or not if the company was charged or not.
However it seems that in a civil case, ones barrister etc could actually pin point a specific regulation or set of regulations as long as it stands the appropriate test enough to win a case.
So in effect, am I right in saying that a plaintiff could claim a Breach of a Statutory duty whether or not the defendant was charged with such breaches and even if he was charged i.e. section 2, a plaintiff could still find the appropriate regulation/s to state a claim so long as they stood to the tests etc.
I do apologise for going a long way round a short answer but I needed to have this info understood or I would be heading for a disaster.
Once again
Thank you for your assistance
Jason (may just be getting there) Still should have picked plumbing arrghhh :)
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
Providing the plaintiff is injured, there is a statutory provision relevant and it was breached it is open to go down the statutory breach route. otherwise our old friend negligence will have to find a route. The prosecution for section 2-8 does not eliminate a possible statutory breach claim for an injury.
Bob
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Posted By Mike Draper
Jason
The criminal process and the civil process are two separate things. Completely separate and for practical purposes independent in their operation.
The prosecution of a crime proceeds on its own merits, to establish beyond a reasonable doubt guilt or innocence.
A civil claim whether solely as a tort or as two separate claims one for as a tort and one for breach of statutory duty, also proceeds on its own merits to establish on the balance of probability, whether compensation should be paid for the loss suffered by the complainant.
There does not need to be a criminal case for a civil claim to proceed and vice versa, there does not need to be a civil claim for a prosecution.
Breach of stat duty is for specific duties. S2-8 are called general duties and are therefore statute barred in civil claims. There are exclusions in other regulations also, such as CDM, where the duties are largely general in nature.
Does that help?
It might help to understand that in H&S cases prosecuted by the HSE, as I understand it the inspector conducts the prosecution for the crown. In such circumstances it may be difficult, time consuming and potentially a waste of effort with little gain for an inspector to proceed with a full list of charges for every statute that was broken in each case, then having to demonstrate how each statute was broken to the satisfaction of the court. Hence there may be a bias in the criminal process towards prosecutions under the general duties (s2-8) of the HSW Act, with only some reference to specific statutes.
Whereas in civil claims winning the breach of stat duty claim, particularly if it's an absolute duty, can prove easier than a drawn out case attempting to demonstrate negligence on the balance of probabilities.
Mike
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
Terminologically I was incorrect in my last posting, The tort being proved is negligence and the statutory duty breach is the means of proving the first heads of the claim. But the spirit was there that it could be proven either route.
Mike
Not many judges will allow two tort claims on the same facts - you choose one route or the other in the end game. You are not going to get two bites of the compensation cherry for the same injury.
Bob
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Posted By Jasonjg
Mike & Bob
Both descriptions have helped me a 1000 times over. I now feel I can make a start with a better basic understanding.
It seems I have pannicked with confusion on the part of civil exclusion and its relation to torts.
I failed to grasp the fact that a civil case would have its own tests in deciding that a Breach of Statutory Duty had occured (the obvious).
Everything is just swimming in my head at the moment but the big picture is now a lot clearer thanks to that input from you both.
It's funny that I am sat here with lots of books and texts and failed to draw the same conclusions and ended up sidetracked.
Just goes to show it is better to feel stupid and ask the obvious rather than draw ones own conclusions.
I will now re-read all text with a new insight and maybe it will all sink in much better than the first 30 times (ok I only read it the once).
Thanks again guys
Jason
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
It has only taken 25 years to get here so don't worry!
Bob
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Posted By Jonathan Sandler CMIOSH
had a notice under sect 22 or 23 been issued? just wanted to know, you might wish to look at section 33 as well.
Regards
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Posted By Mike Draper
Bob
Maybe what I wrote wasn't very clear, but that's roughly what I was trying to get across.
Mike
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Posted By Charlie Gunter
Simply put, if you suffer loss as the result of a breach of statutory duty, you can sue using breach of stutory duty UNLESS the statutory instrument or Act says you can't. Regulation 22 of the MHSAW Regs 1999 used to bar such an action. The Regs were amended by The Management of Health and Safety at Work and Fire Precautions (Workplace) (Amendment) Regulations 2003. So now, theoretically, you can use breach of stutory duty imposed by the Management Regs if loss occurs as a result of that breach.
Charlie
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Posted By Jasonjg
Thanks again guys
This was quite simply my mistake in thinking that should an employer be charged using a regulation or the Act itself that had a Civil exemption, then a plaintiff could not then go on to attempt to prove a breach of statutory duty.
I quite simply did not fully separate the two as they are both treated separately no matter what the decision was in the either cases.
An absolute oversight (and a bit of flapping) on my part.
I have since found the one sentence in my text to also confirm what has been said here in spirit. This morning I was confused, now I am enlightened.
Everything else regarding other sections i.e. section 33 etc, I am following and understanding.
I still need to befriend a solicitor in my life for later use but that’s another story.
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