Posted By holmes1979 If i understand the post correctly, the employee ate his own food, had an reaction because of the food?? I don't see why the employer should report it under RIDDOR, perhaps someone else may disagree.

Posted By Ali You would need to establish ; if the food was provided to the staff by the employer in the course of their work and how the nature of the food fits into the criteria set down by Riddor. I think it is a grey area and only the HSE will be able to give you a definitive answer.Riddor describes an "acute illness requiring medical treatment arising from absorption of any substance by ingestion"..as being a major injury, which would require reporting asap by phone.F2508 to follow within 10d.

Posted By Chrisinwood thank you for your replies, he didnt wilfully eat a cake it was his mates home made pie apparently!!! and he didnt declare to us that he had any alergies although the question was asked!! Anyway the outcome being he has been stabilised and the ICC have confirmed that they do not believe that it is notifiable under the Regs, although obviously reports will be made and warnings sent out. again thanks to all for such a speedy reply put my mind at ease!!