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#1 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:18:00(UTC)
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Posted By John Hatfield Hopefully an easy to answer question for a friday. An employee stumbles in the works car park on his way in to work. Is he at work?
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#2 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:21:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight Sorry John, That's not generally an easy one. 'At work' is a complicated concept, and its to do with whether or not you are at your employers disposal. But in this case he is on the premises, on land controlled by his employer, and in my book he is definitely at work, John
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#3 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:23:00(UTC)
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Posted By peter gotch Hi John H. In my book, probably not. Still commuting. Regards, Peter
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#4 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:31:00(UTC)
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Posted By Richard Mathews I would agree with Peter, not at work. Richard
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#5 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:34:00(UTC)
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Posted By Martyn Hendrie If his entire job is carried out within the confines of the office/ factory I agree with Peter. However, if he was say a sales rep who had visited a client on route to the office then he is at work. If he was a sales rep who had not carried out any work activity on route to the premises he would not be at work.
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#6 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:52:00(UTC)
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Posted By Graeme Barrie Would that not come under your duty of care for anyone on your premises whether in your employment or not?
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#7 Posted : 20 April 2007 14:59:00(UTC)
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Posted By Tracey C Is this question being asked for reporting purposes or compensation purposes? Would that persons working hours come into it? I am only aksing the question because my collegue and i have just had this discussion. Our working hours are 8.45am to 5.45pm but we both get into the office around 7.30am what happened if we tripped in the car park would our hours of work be taken into consideration? Don't want to complicate things but was just curious to other safety professionals thoughts. Regards T
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#8 Posted : 20 April 2007 15:13:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight Graeme, There would be a duit of care irrespective of whether somebody was at work or not, yes. It seems I have been outvoted (and outgunned) on this one, but to me your period of work doesn't automatically start when you clock on, or when your normal working day starts, its more compliacted than that, John
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#9 Posted : 20 April 2007 15:13:00(UTC)
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Posted By Bob Shillabeer Be pragmatic about this, If the person concerned was going to report for work, class it as being in work, if not its a visit to the premises. Are you not looking at the cause or are you trying to get out of responsibility. If the latter you are on a loser, employer's liability comes well into focus I'm afraid.
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#10 Posted : 20 April 2007 15:45:00(UTC)
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Posted By John Hatfield Not as straight forward as i had hoped. Basically the guy was arriving at 07.30 to start work at 08.00. He has since been off work for 7 days and i am just makin gsure this is a RIDDOR. I had a quick chat with the HSE reporting line and they told me it was reportable and i must admit i was of the same opinion and i thought i would get a further confirmation.
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#11 Posted : 20 April 2007 16:02:00(UTC)
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Posted By Lilian McCartney Hi John, What about safe access and egress? A distant memory I have is off a policewoman falling in the car park of the police station on her way home and this was taken as being at work as far as I can remember under the safe egress. I believe whilst she was in the station someone had dug a hole outside and it wasn't signed etc (hole was meant to be there though not just a 'trap' - just in case someone thinks it was a joke). I reckon they were at work
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#12 Posted : 21 April 2007 12:51:00(UTC)
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Posted By steven bentham Criminal liability: It is certainly a workplace. (see H.S.E.'s workplace transport guidance etc). The statutory duty applies as either an employee or another person both covered by health & safety legislation. Civil liability: Depends on the condition of the car park etc. You may or not pay his/her wages if they fall and injure themselves but under criminal & civil legal aspects - it is certainly a workplace. Better spend more time preventing accidents than legal debate on this one.
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#13 Posted : 21 April 2007 21:52:00(UTC)
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Posted By peter gotch 1 Hi John Fully agree with various comments above re invetigating and finding appropriate remedial actions [if any] but getting back to your original question and follow up. I think injury NOT reportable. However, if in doubt, report. You can be prosecuted for not reporting, you can't be prosecuting something that is not reportable. Whichever, you are you are not going to upset the stats given the proven level of underreporting of RIDDDOR reportables [about 2 of 3] P
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#14 Posted : 22 April 2007 08:02:00(UTC)
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Posted By Merv Newman I'm with Peter Gotch. If there is ever any doubt about RIDDOR or not then report it. No worries Merv
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#15 Posted : 22 April 2007 10:34:00(UTC)
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Posted By Philip McAleenan Whether he was at work or not is immaterial, certainly within the context of the material facts presented. The employee “stumbles”. That is all that is stated about the physical event. The act of stumbling is in general, in and off the individual himself, i.e. he or she walks unsteadily or clumsily, and in this instance, it could be inferred that it was a momentary occurrence. The cause for stumbling as a prolonged event may be internal, i.e. a condition leading to dizziness, e.g. vertigo, or external, such as walking across a very uneven surface e.g. a stony beach, without due care. However, as a momentary event, stumbles involve a disruption to balance that is quickly regained with no ill effects to the individual. Stumbling, which is distinguished from both “tripping” and “falling”, is of itself is non-injurious. For it to be injurious it must be combined with addition events that in combination cause harm, e.g. he stumbled AND fell AND broke his arm. Move the scenario to mid-morning after their shift had started. They are definitely at work, but again a mere “stumble” by an individual who quickly regains their balance (as the term implies) has no adverse ramifications for either the individual or for the employer. It is only when stumbling becomes a regular occurrence with that individual, or happens to many employees in similar circumstances, that it becomes a matter for investigation. Remember that as adults competent in the art of walking we are personally responsible for ensuring that we exercise that art competently, and when appropriate take responsibility for our failure to act/walk properly. Too busy at work on Friday but a nice intellectual exercise for a Sunday morning John. Hope the debate helps, Regards, Philip
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#16 Posted : 23 April 2007 09:28:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight Hi Philip. I think you are being too literal in your interpretation of John's use of the word 'stumble', especially since the IP did claim an injury as a result, John
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#17 Posted : 23 April 2007 10:23:00(UTC)
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Posted By Tabs At work. Reason: He is subject to the company rules as soon as he enters the area controlled by the company. If the Security, or the Managing Director told him to move his car, he would be obliged to comply. If he got a BBQ out and the MD told him to put it out, he would be obliged to comply. Start/finish times don't come into it - look at the office event in the local pub: if the employee is to some extent obliged to follow the directions of management, then it is considered to be "at work" (paraphrasing a lot).
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#18 Posted : 23 April 2007 10:36:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight Tabs, My thinking exactly; he is no longer on his own time, especially if the car park is visible from his bosses office, John
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#19 Posted : 23 April 2007 10:40:00(UTC)
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Posted By The toecap Surely an occupiers liability type scenario also. I would say not at work as the question is was he being paid for that time he stumbled? Just a thought.
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#20 Posted : 23 April 2007 11:33:00(UTC)
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Posted By Philip McAleenan John, Unless “stumbles” is a metaphor for some other event or condition, the ordinary, and therefore literal sense of the work must be taken, and that is as I have described. If the stumbling party had stepped into a pothole and broke his ankle would this not have been made explicit rather than obfuscated by the term “stumble”? To take the matter further, the original and subsequent postings by John did not mention that the party was injured or claimed that he/she was injured, merely that he has since been off work for seven days. Whilst it may be inferred that an injury was claimed given the context of this thread and references to RIDDOR, in the absence of additional information it may with equal justification be inferred that the two events are coincidental. What has not been stated is that there was a necessary connection between the two events, that the stumble caused the time off work; in other words that those seven days off work necessarily resulted from or were the inevitable and unavoidable effect of the stumble and that it could not have been otherwise. Given the literal use of the word stumble as a non-injurious event in and off itself, and the absence of any qualifying information on circumstances that lead to an injury or connect it with the time off work it would seem counterintuitive to conclude that this must be a RIDDOR reportable incident. Further information is required. And before an accusation of pedantry in leveled, it is important to realise that it is in the minutiae of detail that the devil is found. Legal cases can and do succeed or fail on the semantics, as well as the degree of information on the material facts that are presented. Regards, Philip
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#21 Posted : 23 April 2007 12:09:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight Hi Philip, Sorry, I remain unconvinced and suggest that stumbles has a vernacular sense which is considerably wider than the one you propose, and reading John's post there's no reason to suppose that he was using it in any other than this simple sense. Agree that detail is important, but over-interpretation doesn't necessarily take this thread forward (in my opinion), Joh
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#22 Posted : 23 April 2007 13:59:00(UTC)
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Posted By Tabs John Hatfield, put us out of our misery... Did you mean stumbled as defined above, or did you mean something else? HSE said it was reportable, you agreed it was reportable - but you sought second opinion. Still glad you did, or are you now more confused?
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#23 Posted : 23 April 2007 15:47:00(UTC)
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Posted By Dave Wilson Dont take the HSE helpline for this as they always say report!
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#24 Posted : 24 April 2007 11:54:00(UTC)
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Posted By GT John, I am not convinced that Peter Gotch and / or others are correct that this is not work related. If as you say he was going to work and not just visiting a friend at work or returning to pick up something he left there then the reason he was there was work related? What is the "work environment"? OSHA defines the work environment as "the establishment and other locations where one or more employees are working or are present as a condition of their employment. The work environment includes not only physical locations, but also the equipment or materials used by the employee during the course of his or her work." I believe this interpretation of being "present as a condition of their employment" is correct. Regards GT
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#25 Posted : 24 April 2007 12:21:00(UTC)
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Posted By John-Mark I can't understand why there's so much discussion over this. The simple answer is: if in doubt, report it and let the relevant enforcing authority decide whether its reportable or not. JM
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#26 Posted : 24 April 2007 12:46:00(UTC)
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Posted By J Knight There does seem to be a polarisation on this board anyway, between those who will say 'go ahead and just report' and those who will say 'don't report unless you absolutely have to. I belong in the former camp, but its easy for me as RIDDOR is not one of my KPIs; I suspect that as we get more compliant here it will creep into my targets, and then I could find myself drifting into the 'don't report' camp. Simply, in my view, if the RIDDOR people say report it, you should. the consequences of not reporting are probably worse than those of reporting, John
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#27 Posted : 24 April 2007 13:11:00(UTC)
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Posted By Steve Cartwright If the Company controls the car park and the car park is on company property then yes report it. Does not matter if he/she was on there way home or coming into work, if it happens on company property you have to report it wether they were there legally or illegally. If car park is owned/managed by someone else then no you don't have to report it. If they had stumbled outside their front door on there way to work you would not report it. If they are seriously injured on a public highway on there way to work you would not report it. Hope this helps
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#28 Posted : 27 April 2007 15:23:00(UTC)
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Posted By Paul M69 John, As has already been stated this is a complicated topic and always unearths opposing views, but from your description I would not report, because the stumble does not appear to have arisen either out of or in connection with work. The following is taken directly from a HSE information sheet; "To be reportable, the accident must ‘arise out of or be in connection with work’. Understanding this phrase from the Regulations is vital to helping determine if an accident is reportable. Its broad meaning is that an accident will be reportable if it is associated in some way with how the work is carried out". In your example there was no work being carried out therefore it would not be reportable, however, if you find that the stumble was as a result of some fault with the car park then I would report it. Regards, Paul.
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#29 Posted : 29 April 2007 19:36:00(UTC)
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Posted By Shaun Brennan I think it also depends on his place of work, but i would say "he was at work", duty of care would definitely come into the equation Bugsy
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