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Posted By David Matthew
When a professional football player say breaks a leg is it reportable under RIDDOR?
David
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Posted By CFT
Why not David?
It's work related
They are an employee
They have an employer
They are not exempt from Riddor reporting
CFT
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Posted By David Matthew
I'm with you CFT on this one. I just wonder what is put down of the 2508 to prevent it happening again.
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Posted By Crim
Obviously ban football altogether!
I'll have to give up my season ticket and sell my football boots though?
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Posted By CFT
Clearly Crim as a proactive control measure that one does it! Now why didn't I think of that?
Charley
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Posted By Tabs
Yes. What's more, with it being big news (most times) you had better do it quick before the LA gets to you lol.
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Posted By garyh
Check RIDDOR. Sporting injuries exempt.
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Posted By CFT
Ah but Gary, the original question didn't suggest it was whilst playing football; it may have been outside of the sporting activity, but still work related.
Charley Farley Farnsworth Tabbernacle Trelawney.
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Posted By David Matthew
CFT/Gary,
I was suggesting that it was whilst playing. Gary not all sporting injuries appear to be exempt as the guide L73 only list rugby or boxing as people consent to the possibility of getting hurt. Football would appear to be outside of this. Just a thought.
David
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Posted By Tabs
Is football a sport again now then? (thought it had long since given up that claim!)
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Posted By garyh
David, you are wrong, I think. Football is exempt during normal play; however, I think that RIDDOR could only apply if there was VIOLENCE rather than just foul play. Criminal law (eg Police) would then apply. IMHO.
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Posted By Pete Longworth
If it was a Preston North End player wouldn't the Trades Description Act be involved?
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Posted By Tony abc jprhdnMurphy
I studied this on a serious basis a couple of years ago. The player, though injured, does not take time off from work through injury...
His rehabilitation and therefore his healing process is part of his daily work activity. This includes any medical operation to speed up the healing process. There is however a fine detail in regards to "retirement through injury" where a player could still sue the employer through negligence. The PFA have incorporated this into their "care initiative" so it is unlikely, though not impossible, that RIDDOR would be used as proof of injury
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Posted By David Matthew
Gary,
You might indeed be correct but isn't it nice to have a light hearted discussion.
Regards,
Tony
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Posted By garyh
Light hearted discussion? In stealth and hasty??
Come on! Tcch!
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Posted By Ali
So does that mean that shin pads being ppe are the last resort in lieu of a "safe system of work" ? What's that then ? Diving without being touched, running away from tackles, a no-man wall or banning heading ! Only joking of course.....
I suppose technically speaking it would be reportable. I would be interested to find out how many F2508's from football clubs the ICC actually get - not many I imagine.
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Posted By Ian_P
Ha! Definately a Friday one this.
This was discussed at great lengths at our university recently during a heated debate. The 'agreed' conclusion (if you can call it that) was settled at "it all depends on how the player broke his leg!!!".
If this occurs from 'normal' play i.e. a bad two footed foul, a slip, or collision with the advertising hoardings then it is not a RIDDOR. This is because the player as accepted this 'probable' risk and 'consented' to the potentially violant act of getting tackled.
If it occurs outside 'normal' play, i.e. an aeroplane crashes onto the pitch or a supporter takes a baseball bat to the Man.Utd no 7..........!!.....then it would be RIDDOR.
Then again, we are splitting hairs and its all technicalities. The reality is that sporting injuries will never be reported, and to be honest I don't think they should!!
Just another good Friday thread pointing out the glories of quite possibly the worst set of regulations ever.
Good old RiDDOR
To the pub ------>
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Posted By Ian_P
Sorry, forgot to attach. Excerpt from guidance:
"The term ‘non-consensual’ is used to exclude injuries arising from
situations where the injured person had agreed to the violent act. This would
exclude, for example, injuries arising from some types of professional sport,
where taking part implies acceptance of a level of violence and risk of injury."
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Posted By Crim
So the injured player is the one making the tackle and gets himself hurt?
Or;
If a violent act with police in attendance once the red card has been shown the player committing the offence should be arrested and charged accordingly?
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Posted By Lisa_
Is diving one of the sports that is exempt? From the coverage that I see they are either professional actors or divers - unless it is unsupported by their management and is seen as a frolic of their own!
Is the abuse given to the ref counted as violence in the workplace and is is mandatory to have a visually impaired ref whenever your team are losing?
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