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Posted By Joe24W
An employee went off sick. He self certified for the first week.
A sick note was due the following Monday. On the Wednesday he presented a sick note on which the date had been altered from 18/03/08 to 17/03/08.
Has he done anything wrong and if so what course of action should I take.
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
Meet with him/her to establish the relevant facts and then decide what action, if any, to take.
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Posted By CFT
Joe
This is really an HR issue as opposed to a H&S one, despite the fact it is a sick 'note'. I note the individual has reduced, as opposed to increased the time date, which in certain circumstances may have insurance ramifications.
CFT
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Posted By William
Perhaps it was the doctor who changed the date, if their doctor is anything like mine they are so busy that they can be forgiven for making the odd mistake, it is more an HR issue, but is it really such a big deal for one day?
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
CFT
Bearing in mind that - according to the CIPD - only about 50% of employers have a discrete HR function and that no legislation specifies that an organisation should have a HR function or 'competent person', I wonder whether there is any statutory or even consistent administrative boundary between 'HR' and 'OSH'.
If there is, please tell us what it is and what the relevant law(s) or regulation(s) defining this boundary are/is.
In practice, one can differentiate criteria for membership of professional societies that represent different areas of HR and OSH yet surely these are historical contingencies rather than socially necessary or legally based.
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Posted By CFT
Kieran
With respect; perhaps the point has been missed here, and that is one of a likely 'pecuniary advantage' perhaps, or a 'misappropriation' or 'unintended fraud', for whatever reason based upon the information provided by the originator; if one is to conclude that it is, in fact as it appears, and is a proven 'misappropriation with intent' then this would be a 'likely' cautionable scenario, and the result would be highly dependant on the policy of the organisation in this given situation.
If you consider this a H&S issue and not an employment/HR one, I can offer no further thought on the matter; your questioning of the HR/H&S link however, is one in which I can categorically state work 'hand in glove' together on many occasions; not in this instance though, IMO.
CFT
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Posted By Joe24W
Thank you for your replies - I feel I perhaps did not explain the problem well enough - the position we are in we need to be able to trust the employee - - the employee in question admitted to altering the Doctors note - and I wonder if that is classed as "Fraud" - or gross misconduct -eg trying to gain an extra days sick pay. Any advice gratefully received.
Joe24W
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
Thanks for the clarification, CFT
I've no reason to assert (and did not actually do so) that sickness absence is 'a safety issue', unless, in the absence of a HR specialist it is de facto or formally assigned to the safety specialist.
I v. much appreciate your clarification as I appreciate how it's possible to allow the violations to which you refer to not only go unchecked but to even become norms. Thanks again.
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Posted By Joe24W
Kieran
Thank you for the quality of your answer, we are a small organisation, and I unfortunately have responsibility for both areas H/R and H/S.
I was hoping that people with more experience than myself maybe able to offer much needed advice -as this person is in a position of trust.
Joe24W
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
Joe
Since you indicate that the employee is in a position of trust, it is reasonable to assume that he/she may take forceful defensive action in the face of an enquiry.
If I were in your situation - which, thank the Lord, I'm not, sir! - I would either interview him/her in the company of a reliable third party or else conduct an openly taped interview so that he/she is informed that evidence of the conversation is on record.
Stressful for all concerned but also a really good professional learning opportunity.
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Posted By Joe24W
Kieran
Thank you - this site is in fact a god-send, and I am new to this.
The employee has been interviewed, at which verbatum notes were taken - the employee admitted deliberately altering the sick note in question.
My inclination is to dismiss the employee, as I feel unable to trust the employee anymore.
(this person has worked for us for 3 years) .
would this be justifiable.
previous sick record has not been the best, roughly 4/5 weeks off for both the last 2 yrs - although no disciplinary action has been taken against the person.
Joe24W
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Posted By Kieran J Duignan
Joe
To weigh up such a serious step (which stays on the individual's record for some time and counts against in the event of a further misconduct incident) bear in mind the impact, not only in legal terms, but also in terms of the psychological warning signals to others, whatever action you take).
So, it's necessary to determine the scale of the misconduct as viewed by the board and to consider the pros and cons of a written warning as an alternative.
If the company doesn't wish to support you through a solicitor or HR consultant to draft documentation, I'd encourage you to study the guidance available on the ACAS website before committing the company.
My own bias may perhaps be somewhat inclined towards 'lenience' in so far as I'm concerned to have regard for the impact of disciplinary action on the morale of others and the culture of the business as well as the individual for the rest of his/her life.
Since what was signalled initially as 'sickness absence' emerges as 'gross misconduct', I'm finding myself actually reflecting CFT's cautionary stance by requesting the board to either provide specialist resources to support you or to make the decision based on your guidance about the options.
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Posted By Joe24W
Kieran & CFT
Thank you all for the replies - I appreciate this is a very delicate area - and will take all advice on board.
It is great to find a community out there, who are willing to give genuine help - thank you once again to all the experts in this area, who are giving up their spare time - in order to help people such as myself - it gives me faith in the system - so to spk.
Joe
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Posted By CFT
Joe
I'm really loathe to take this any further as it really is not something that 'anyone' here on the forums is 'likely' to be able to assist you with per se; other than perhaps a friendly ear, and a non-committal suggestion or three.
Having spent many years advising on corporate law and employment issues, I would finalise my input here by asking what the contract of employment (CoE) states in terms of misconduct or gross industrial misconduct; in other words what is laid down that constitutes it?
You should then follow the procedures laid out in your company policy for such an instance, and give the individual every opportunity to explain him/herself; only then taking a decision on the way forward; one would not wish to be in a situation where 'constructive dismissal' could be levied against you (although, not the end of the world).
If you do not have the availability of a specialist to guide you or advise, then I would recommend you speak to ACAS, they are extremely helpful in such a circumstance.
I wish you all the best and that you make the right decision for all concerned. It's actually not as bad as it probably seems to you.
CFT
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Posted By Joe24W
CFT
I have read your reply, and fully understand your advice, thank you for your imput it has been of value -
I will let you all know the outcome of this situation if you would like - for the purposes of helping anyone else - or finding themselves in a similar situation as myself.
Another meeting has been arranged with the employee, for the end of next week.
Once again thank you to all for your help and support on this unusual issue.
Joe
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Posted By Pete48
Joe, as CFT and Kieran have said, tread lightly.
In order for something to amount to gross misconduct, and thus allow instant dismissal, the test is that it has to be so serious as to go to the root of the contract.
You need to ask yourself whether this one event goes to the root of the contract with this employee. I am assuming that he was certified as medically unfit and therefore the reason for his absence is not at question? Therefore, his motivation may not be intent to defraud but one of an expedient, if rather short sighted, attempt to conform to a system. Being foolish is not the same as being untrustworthy or a thief: a valid argument that you need to consider.
Your "feeling" that you can no longer trust this employee is not reason enough on its own.
If you are not 100% certain about it going to the root of the contract then it may be misconduct but is probably not gross misconduct. Misconduct of course requires you to follow a strict procedure including warning letters and time to improve. If you do not then, then you may be unfairly dismissing this employee.
These notes are just my opinion based on previous experiences in this area, I am not an employment law specialist. I hope they are useful for you to further your research into this matter.
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Posted By Tabs
I am inclined to agree with Pete48 - if expert guidance is not provided.
Was his intention to receive one extra day's sick pay, or (more likely) to cover up a gap between self certifying and a Dr's note?
Do you believe he was ill on the 17th or not?
Did he offer an explanation for changing the date?
You mention previous sickness record - are you suggesting he was not ill for those occasions? Some people genuinely do fall ill quite often - sometimes due to underlying causes such as stress (not always work-related).
Has he shown remorse, and do you believe him?
Would suspension without pay be an alternative?
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Posted By water67.
Hi, I would only add:- do you have access to an employment law specialist? if not you could contact acas they may give you some advice. If you consider this gross miss conduct and thus a termination is your only option be sure you can defend this at an employment tribunal as the employee may take you to this stage if they feel and can convince a lawyer that you have not followed all procedures etc. As has been said would a written final warning or a period of suspension without pay turn this around to the satisfaction of all parties. 3 years loyal service cant just be dismissed.
Cheers.
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Posted By IOSH Moderator
Thank you to all who have contributed really positive suggestions to this query.
The Moderators are locking this thread now. It was, strictly speaking, outside the remit of the forums. It has now run its course, with a lot of very useful leads and points to consider.
Jane Blunt
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