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Posted By Seamus O Sullivan Hi Guys,
I have across a situation,
employee was shown a dvd on manual handling in english two years ago.
Employee is polish, poor English now, may have been worse 2 years ago, employee did not do any practical lifts,
Employee has a serious back injury as a result of work.
My feeling on the situation is the employer did not provide sufficient training. Employer thinks he is OK, I suggest he has a problem.
What do you think?
Regards Seamus
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Posted By holmezy Seamus
part of the training requirement is that the trainee understands the content. I'd suggest that just because the employee sat through the course, because he couldn'y understand it, then the training is worthless.
See my disclaimer on other threads!!
Holmezy
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Posted By MartB Hi Seamus, Was there any additional information provided either before or after the dvd presentation? (SSOW-Risk assessment etc)
Was the training documented? (Was there a questionnaire in relation to the content of the dvd to obtain understanding of what was shown?)
Purely showing a dvd alone, would not be deemed to be adequate and sufficient training?
With a PI claim with no documented evidence a company would be fully exposed.
Regards, Martb
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Posted By Seamus O Sullivan hi
There is no evidence the employee even saw the dvd, however the employee does admit a dvd was shown. There was no translator, so the employee could not understand anything.
The dvd is not even available for inspection, for what i know it could be a dvd on anything.
There was no test afterwards, no practical etc.
Seamus
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Posted By James K Hi Seamus, As a manual handling instructor I have given training to both inhouse employees and on external training courses. The training must be given in a language that the trainee understands completely. The training must be followed by a practical assessment completed by the trainee and overseen by the instructor. This practical assessment must be documented. There are a lot of other requirements but the above covers your queries only. Like you, I would also suggest that the employer has a potential problem.
See my disclaimer on other threads
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Posted By Seamus O Sullivan
Thanks for all the replies.
Regards
Seamus
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Posted By Dave Merchant It's not as clear-cut as it sounds. There is no legal requirement for formal training under the MHR, indeed the word 'training' doesn't appear in the Regs at all - instead the employer has to manage and assess the risks and provide information on weights. The Post Office case ruled that the employee also has a duty to act "sensibly" when lifting, and we don't know in this case if they did or not.
INDG143 *suggests* training but it's only a suggestion. Many companies do, but every person on the planet does 'manual handling' on a daily basis and the vast majority have never been awarded a certificate for it.
The employer could therefore argue that they did what was mandated by law (i.e. not much), and it'd be a battle of opinion over whether that was adequate or not - but I wouldn't bet anything on the outcome of a civil case.
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