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0ver 7 day - Restricted Duties & RIDDOR Reporting
Rank: Forum user
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Person lost her footing whilst dragging a tarpaulin over uneven ground, she lands awkwardly resulting in some discomfort in her lower back but she carries on working for the remainder of the shift. She remains available for work for a further 18 days before taking one week annual leave. When she returns from leave she goes on restricted duties as her back / leg still hurts and states its as a result of the incident which occurred almost a month earlier.
Reg 4 states:
Where any person at work is incapacitated for routine work for more than seven consecutive days (excluding the day of the accident) because of an injury resulting from an accident arising out of or in connection with that work, the responsible person must send a report to the relevant enforcing authority in an approved manner as soon as practicable and in any event within 15 days of the accident.
I have my views on whether this is reportable under RIDDOR and welcome guidance / comments before I make a final decision. RIDDOR Yes or No?
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Rank: Super forum user
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First let us assume that the incident was reported, and the accident book filled in. As I see it she has gone onto 'restricted duties' 25 days after the incident so my first question would be who has put her on restricted duties? was it her GP or perhaps your Occupational Health department/advisor? If so what were the findings/reasons for this decision, have they stated that it is related to this incident? MHO it is not RIDDOR.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Rachael
As with virtually every RIDDOR question ever asked/discussed on this forum, you're likely to get conflicting replies because I think we pretty much all agree that the RIDDOR Regs are badly written (and at times in conflict with themselves!). To put it another way, if the Regs were well written, we'd all know exactly what to report and what not to report wouldn't we ?
In your particular instance (as with many others !), there's an argument for and an argument against reporting. Firstly, I assume that the accident was "work related" in the strictest sense (ie the person was doing something that they should have been doing, and in the manner in which the task should have been done) ?
You have also used the words that she "remains available for work for a further 18 days before taking one week annual leave". When you say that she "remained available for work" does that mean that she DID work, or was just "available" for work (..but not required to work) ?
With regard to the person who had the accident, there's always the question of motives - she could be genuine, angling towards a PI claim or simply an opportunist who sees a way of getting out of work for a while - who knows.
The argument for RIDDOR is that a work related accident has occurred which has (albeit eventually) led to the person "needing" to go onto light duties. To the letter of the law, this makes it RIDDOR reportable.
However (and especially if she DID work for the 18 days plus one week annual leave), AND if it's only a self-imposed "can't do my normal job" rather than medically certified, you could argue that further investigation (and perhaps a medical ?) is needed before reporting.
Personally (and particularly if you're confident that your systems will stand up to scrutiny), I think I'd report, but I'd make my thoughts and feelings clear on the report form. Late reporting in situations such as this one wouldn't be frowned upon so long as you have a good explanation for it (which you appear to have given the circumstances).
Just my thoughts for what they're worth...
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Rank: Super forum user
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I would ask for a medically diagnosed injury to determine if it is reportable or not. If there is no medically diagnosable injury then there is nothing to link her current condition to the incident which occurred previously. I agree with everyone else too that the RIDDOR regs are one of the most poorly written and unclear pieces of legislation in the history of UK law and need to be scrapped and redone logically and based on sound medical trauma descriptions.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Whether the RIDDOR regs are badly written or not, I don't think its debatable.
It is not RIDDOR because the causal chain has been broken.
There may have been events in the past 3 weeks that have caused a minor injury to become a major, which in itself is not a direct result of the initial injury.
Edited by user 06 February 2018 13:24:05(UTC)
| Reason: Grammar
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1 user thanked WatsonD for this useful post.
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Rank: Forum user
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I'm with WatsonD on this one. We had an incident a couple of years back where by an employee cut his finger quiet badly and went to local GP surgery for the wound to be cleaned, dressed and stitched before returning to work the same day. The following week when he went to have the wound checked it was discovered that it was infected so badly he needed surgery to clean the wound; the resultant surgery meant that he could only return to light supervisory duties rather than his normal duties. We sounded requested clarification from HSE as to if this was reportable and were told that the fact he had returned to full normal duties after the initial incident broke the link in the chain and therefore it was not reportable.
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Rank: Forum user
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If the injured person went back to normal duties, this is absolutely NOT reportable. I think the word 'consectutive' is the clue here. However, if they haven't been able to carry out their normal duties in that period, then the HSE should have been notified.
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Rank: Super forum user
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The "available for 18 days" really intrigues me especially followed by a weeks holiday.
Do you work zero hour contracts? As such I would argue there is a difference not envisaged by the regulations which assume full time continuing employment in the traditional sense e.g. Monday to Friday 9 til 5
I know a chef who has "been available" for 30 days BUT the employer has provided no hours (and no pay) in that period.
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Rank: Super forum user
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The "available for 18 days" really intrigues me especially followed by a weeks holiday.
Do you work zero hour contracts? As such I would argue there is a difference not envisaged by the regulations which assume full time continuing employment in the traditional sense e.g. Monday to Friday 9 til 5
I know a chef who has "been available" for 30 days BUT the employer has provided no hours (and no pay) in that period.
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Rank: Super forum user
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I don’t know about this person, but unless I was in so much pain that I couldn’t soldier on especially if it was 2 weeks before my holiday, I would put up with no end of discomfort, so I don’t get the P… taken out of me by my colleagues. Especially if I thought I would be able to rest and recover on holiday. But that is just me, for all you know they hurt themselves on holiday.
There is a lot of HSE related anecdotal evidence about the HSE stating causal links broken, but they don’t seem to be brave enough to put that in writing anywhere public. I suspect because every case is different and has to be reviewed for likelihood on its own circumstances. I would be nice if they said something.
Would I report? not sure. I would investigate with others who they work with to see if they were constantly complaining or appeared to be in discomfort during that 18 days. And try and find out from their manager what sort of person they are. Does seem a good time though, but lots more questions to ask before deciding.
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Rank: Forum user
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If the lady had actually worked for the 18 days then gone off on medical grounds for over the 7 days I would most likely RIDDOR it, but as she had been at work then on holiday, the question is what has she done whilst on holiday which could well have aggravated the orignial ingury, so I wouldn't report it.
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Rank: Super forum user
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I wouldn't report it but the cynic in me thinks it should be investigated
Hmmmm I edited it because the cynic in me is a cynic!
Edited by user 07 February 2018 16:01:33(UTC)
| Reason: Not specified
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Rank: Forum user
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We had an employee report that she tripped and fell down the stairs, hurting her back. I investigated and found that a tread on the stairs had come loose and she showed me a bruise on her arm that she said was caused in the accident so in all likelyhood she was making a genuine report.
She continued to work for a week and then went to her GP who told her to take some time off, which she did, 2 weeks in fact.
We didn't think this was reportable since the incident had happened 1 week previously but when I was having a casual conversation with a HSE inspector she said it actually should have been reported as the injury was directly related to the time off.
Originally Posted by: Hsquared14
I would ask for a medically diagnosed injury to determine if it is reportable or not. If there is no medically diagnosable injury then there is nothing to link her current condition to the incident which occurred previously. I agree with everyone else too that the RIDDOR regs are one of the most poorly written and unclear pieces of legislation in the history of UK law and need to be scrapped and redone logically and based on sound medical trauma descriptions.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Originally Posted by: Cooper103721 If the lady had actually worked for the 18 days then gone off on medical grounds for over the 7 days I would most likely RIDDOR it, but as she had been at work then on holiday, the question is what has she done whilst on holiday which could well have aggravated the orignial ingury, so I wouldn't report it.
The OP didn't say "at work" the term used was "available for work" making 25 consecutive days between the day of the incident and the light duties.
Having a planned vacation period does not necessarily mean the IP went on holiday or did anything new to aggravate an injury - they may have spent the full period recovering to a point where they could return on light duties
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Rank: Super forum user
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Originally Posted by: Cooper103721 If the lady had actually worked for the 18 days then gone off on medical grounds for over the 7 days I would most likely RIDDOR it, but as she had been at work then on holiday, the question is what has she done whilst on holiday which could well have aggravated the orignial ingury, so I wouldn't report it.
The OP didn't say "at work" the term used was "available for work" making 25 consecutive days between the day of the incident and the light duties.
Having a planned vacation period does not necessarily mean the IP went on holiday or did anything new to aggravate an injury - they may have spent the full period recovering to a point where they could return on light duties
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0ver 7 day - Restricted Duties & RIDDOR Reporting
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