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#1 Posted : 11 March 2004 11:14:00(UTC)
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Posted By jacq We have an employee who has been on sick leave with depression after being harassed by a supervisor.The company Occupational Medical Officer said he would be fit to return to work if he was re-deployed. Company has nowhere to re-deploy employee and told him yesterday that he must return to his old post under the same supervisor. They are claiming that the OMA advice supercedes the fact that he has a sick line and have told him to return to work on the 22nd. I feel that the company are wrong on this issue but they disagree, saying they have taken the highest advice possible!HELP
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#2 Posted : 11 March 2004 11:56:00(UTC)
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Posted By Shane Johnston Is it fact that the supervisor harassed the individual ? Did the individual make the employer aware of the harassment? Did your company take disciplinary action against the supervisor ? If the individual raised the issue with his employer and can prove he was harassed, then your employer must move the supervisor rather than re-deploying the individual who was being harassed. If the claim is not based on fact, or was not proven, then unfortunately the individual must return to work. Regarless of what the OMA has stated, he is not in a position to prove that what the individual has stated (ie harassment) is fact. Shane.
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#3 Posted : 11 March 2004 12:02:00(UTC)
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Posted By Karen Todd If you bring this person back to work, under the same supervisor, then it is reasonable to forsee that they would suffer stress, anxiety, depression and probably go off sick again therefore you would have failed in your duty of care towards this person. Regards, Karen
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#4 Posted : 11 March 2004 13:18:00(UTC)
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Posted By Nick Egan Taken the highest advise possible? They had better do more than pray that they are right! Karens got it about right. Walker v Norhtumberland CC and Sutherland v Hatton & Others underpin this. The other way forward would perhaps be to ensure that the supervisor is counselled ensuring his management approach is right and then mediation between the parties?
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#5 Posted : 11 March 2004 16:01:00(UTC)
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Posted By Bernie Woods Jacq, The company can't have it both ways, either they accept the OMA's advice or they don't. The OMA is stating that the person is fit to return to work in a different capacity. Therefore, if the company cannot offer a different role, the person is not fit to return to work. I would suggest that your organisation is storing up a rather large claim for itself if they continue along this road.
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#6 Posted : 11 March 2004 16:37:00(UTC)
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Posted By jacq Thank you all. Still unsure if company can force employee back to work as he has a doctor's certificate until May 19th and they are insisting he return on March 22nd. They said this was "non negotiable"
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#7 Posted : 11 March 2004 18:48:00(UTC)
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Posted By Mike Miller It would seem that not only the supervisor might be harrasing him but the company is also by attempting to force him back to work. One cannot argue with a doctors cerificate unless they are prepared to have the individual examined by an independant medical consultant. And this can only happen with the consent of the individual by the authorised release of medical history from GP. I feel another E.T. coming on !! MIke
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#8 Posted : 11 March 2004 19:52:00(UTC)
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Posted By John Murgatroyd Your companies attitude seems to me to be contrary tosection 2 of the H&SAWA in that they are supposed to protect, as far as is reasonably practical, the health, safety and welfare of their employees. This also includes bullying and violence. Not only are they ignoring the cause of the employees depression, but they are harrassing the employee themselves. Thereby increasing the stress. Is your OMA a specialist in mental health problems ? If not, then why is your company using him/her to further persecute a sick person ? The advice, from my unions legal advice section, is that your employee has a good case in the event of being dismissed and taking your company to an industrial tribunal. All in all, it seems to me that your company has, probably for reasons of personal dislike, chosen to persue a policy of official bullying.
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#9 Posted : 12 March 2004 11:22:00(UTC)
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Posted By Shane Johnston Having been harassed, and having seen people use the same system to "explain" poor attendance, one must remember that there are two sides to a coin. Each party has to abide by their side of the contract. Employers and employees have a duty to act reasonably. You're all assuming that the employer is acting unreasonably, and that the employee was harassed by the Supervisor !! Has he actualy made a formal complaint to his employer, was this prior to his absence or after his employer has asked him to come back to work ? If a claim has been made has the employer investigated it, and if so was it proven ? Is this the only period of absence in the past few years, or is this the final straw? I was bullied/harassed for several years at work, I had on average 30+ days sick per year, and was asked on several occasions by HR, Occ Health etc if there was an underlying cause ..... but failed to report the harassment. My employer acted reasonably to try and improve my attendance, I didn't. If they had decided to "let me go" due to my poor sickness record, and as they had acted reasonably, I doubt I would have a leg to stand on. I only made a formal complaint after I was approached by HR "off the record". I was told that they "could not act until someone made a complaint". I made the formal complaint and the issue was resolved, sickness returned to zero etc etc. I have also know an individual who has had a very poor attendance record, pull the harassment card after their employer has decided to take action over their attendance. One must remember that the employee has a duty to turn up to work. If he fails to do this, and the employer acts reasonably and makes every effort to encourage him back, but attendance does not improve .... then they can wave him goodbye. Shane.
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#10 Posted : 12 March 2004 13:29:00(UTC)
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Posted By jacq this may help to clarify the position. The employee first complained of harassment from the supervisor in 2000 and provided witnesses. Grievance investigation found that the supervisor had an "overzealous attitude to the employee" The employee was told by management that he was oversensitive. Employee was signed off for 3 months in 2000 over the incidents. This time a new manager investigated the matter "thoroughly" (his own words) but refused to interview the workmen the employee had as witnesses to the events. Manager's conclusion is that no harassment took place this time. I understand the employee is considering resigning and claiming constructive dismissal due to an irrevocable breakdown in trust and confidence of his employers or not turning up on the 22nd to see what management do. Employer refused to pay employee's holiday pay under the Working Times Regulations and the employee applied to an employment tribunal. The employer paid the money into his account before a hearing could take place. Once again , thank you all for the input. I have never used the forum before and you are all amazingly generous with you time and suggestions. Jacq
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#11 Posted : 12 March 2004 19:32:00(UTC)
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Posted By John Murgatroyd There you go then. Employee 1 - Employer 0 So, what's the book on the likely payout... Looking back through tribunal decisions, and bearing in mind that the amount they can award has dramatically increased. I should say about 30K (ish). And he could probably also apply to retain/go back to, his job. Hmm. No proper investigation of a legitimate complaint. Prejudiced managers. Driven to illness. Possibly also grounds for a criminal complaint...as in assault (no, you don't have to be hit to claim assault) LOADS of fun for a zealous lawyer.
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#12 Posted : 14 March 2004 11:47:00(UTC)
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Posted By Raymond Rapp Jacq, Some very good and sound advice. I suspect you already knew most of the advice given and wanted a way forward. I would suggest printing the responses and passing them on to your immediate boss with the caveat - on your head be it ! Ray
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#13 Posted : 14 March 2004 12:32:00(UTC)
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Posted By Stuart Nagle Jacq. If there is case for harassment here, and the company have admonished the supervisor, and then insist that the employee return to work under the same supervisor and conditions, without some form of management intervention with both parties to agree how to move forward to everyones benefit, even on best advice (medically), I see the employee having have good grounds for the following: 1) claim for stress - employee put back into position where he is likely to be further harassed and possibly exposed to discrimination etc by the supervisor... 2) the employee going sick again due to 'stress' (have you done an assessment of the outcomes of the employee returning to work under the same conditions ect?) and making a claim 3) a case in the industrial tribunal for stress, constructive dismisal etc...ect... I think, unless the situation for the employee retruning to work is considerably better than it was before he went sick, and there is considerable evidence that the company have gone so far as is reasonably practicable to improve the working conditions for the employee, and tackled the supervisor and made efforts to sort this problem out, then the company are batting on a very sticky wicket!! - regardless of the medical advice that he is fit to return to work. Stuart
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#14 Posted : 14 March 2004 17:39:00(UTC)
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Posted By John Murgatroyd I cannot believe that a doctor would recommend a return to work against another doctors advice. Especially with no improvement in the conditions that led to the workers stress and depression in the first place. Is the employers medical advisor a qualified medical practitioner ? Or just another medically unqualified consultant of sorts ? Or another part-qualified person whose ego considers him/her to be better than another ? Oh well, such things make law practitioners rich...
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