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Posted By STEPHEN HOLDEN
I have been arguing as to the criteria for reporting > 3day injury. My argument is that the absence does not necessarily have to be 3 consecutive days after the incident, but may take into account further absences caused by the injury. Am I right?
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Rank: Guest
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Posted By Ron Impey
The ACOP makes no mention of the situation you describe. The inference is that the injury must cause the person to be off work or unable to carry out any of their normal duties immediately, or very shortly following the incident, not at a future time.
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Posted By Steve Sanders
I'd agree with you Stephen, although I've never considered the situation before reading your posting.
The main purpose of RIDDOR it to collect data inorder to prevent reoccures, and if one of the triggers is 3 consecutive days lost time or light duties, that must mean any 3 consecutive day that result from the accident.
Steve
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Posted By J Knight
Hi Steve,
this has come up in previous postings. I have had advice from HSE (on a specific occasion) that an absence some 14 months after an accident was reportable as there was an obvious causal link between an incident at work and the time off. Other people have had advice which completely contradicts this and is closer to Ron's statment above. So if HSE is confused, what are we supposed to do? BTW, the advice I had was from a Principal Inspector, not the national reporting centre; but I believe that the contrary advice was from a similar source. So my advice has to be; ring 'em up and ask 'em,
John
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Rank: Guest
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Posted By Ron Impey
I've had contradictory advice from different persons at the ICC.
2 more or less identical incidents which were phoned through to the ICC. One operator confirmed that an incident was indeed reportable, another basically said that I should avoid wasting their time.
If something is or is not reportable, this needs to be clearly stated in the ACOP.
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