Rank: Guest
|
Posted By halesowen Baggie
When a new set of Regulations come out that allow for a breach of statutory duty in civil law. Are claims allowed from the date of the regs coming out (there was no duty to breach before they came out)or can a person bring an action for a breach that occurred before the date the Regs came in?
an example is;
I have just noticed a advert with regard to vibration compensation that states 'if you have suffered these problems within the last 30 years'.
or is this a 'date of knowledge' thing with regard to negligence.
|
|
|
|
Rank: Guest
|
Posted By Bob Shillabeer
An interesting if somewhat unecessary question if I may say so. There has always been a civil acytion for injury not necessarily through a breach of a staturory duty. The 'new Regulations' are not what the case is generally based upon but a duty of care which was not adequately given. The new Regultaions may give added strenth to the argument but Judges would make the required judgement as to is appropriateness. E.G. if a Regulation states the employer must do X and Y but he only does X the Judge will consider if Y was required to meet the duty of care even if the Regulations did not exist and award appropriately.
|
|
|
|
Rank: Guest
|
Posted By halesowen Baggie
I would have thought the Regs were the basis of a 'breach of statutory duty'. Regs protect,Regs breached,type of accident that the Regs protect person from etc.
|
|
|
|
You cannot post new topics in this forum.
You cannot reply to topics in this forum.
You cannot delete your posts in this forum.
You cannot edit your posts in this forum.
You cannot create polls in this forum.
You cannot vote in polls in this forum.