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#1 Posted : 30 March 2007 17:42:00(UTC)
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Posted By Chris E
Could anybody let me know their opinion on how to determine if employees private cars are used PRMARILY for private use. Is it based on a comparison of time and miles travelled or do you have to take into account whether individuals have signed contracts confirming their agreement to use private cars for work?

This question if concerned with the new smoke free regulations due to come into force in July and specifically the meaning of 'primarily' in these regulations.
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#2 Posted : 30 March 2007 22:19:00(UTC)
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Posted By Bennie
Hi Cris - we are encouraged to car share. However, it is usually that the fellow workers wife has the car and I assist by taking my fellow worker nearer where their wife works.

My own personal car - I will not smoke in the car if my wife or kids are in the car - but we have finished at the office - stressed out and need a fag -n - stuck in traffic - 3 guests in the car and i have asked permission to "put my head out the window and have a cig". Sometimes told to close the windows - never mind the smoke - cos cold
( Scotland)
Your car - you decide - they dont like - they dont travel - if using your car on company business, which I do, then it is back to common courtesy. If no smoke in the car - again up to you, you pull over every 10 mile for a smoke - easy when you think of it lol.
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#3 Posted : 30 March 2007 22:35:00(UTC)
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Posted By Chris E
Thanks for that, I agree it is easy to think of common sense approach and I am sure that is the conclusion I will come to.

However I still need to ensure that the common sense approach I decide on complies with the relevant statutory provision, if that is possible!!

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