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Posted By notsothicko
Employee is on his way to work at 2:55 pm turning into the carpark, emploee due to start work at 3pm.
Another car runs into the back of employees car whilst turning right on a public highway and employee suffers whiplash injury.
Employee works for a couple of hours then goes home due to injury.
Union tells employee this is an industrial injury and he can make a claim.
I do not think this is an industrial injury as the employee was not AT WORK at the time can anyone shed any light of this Industrial Injury or NOT ?????
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Posted By anon1234
This issue is not really whether it is an industrial injury but rather whether the company had a duty of care towards the employee at that time.
For example is the layout of the entrance to the carpark such that it creates a backlog of traffic onto the main road e.g. a barrier system that is contributory to this backlog or an entrance that is difficult to negotiate
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Posted By Gff
RTA sort it with the other geezers insurance!
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Posted By BB
Not.
Call me cynical, but that's all the unions have to offer their members these days...legal support through a claim.
However spurious. Woe is me.
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Posted By holmezy
If the employee was "on his way to work" and the accident happened on a "public highway" then by no stretch of the imaginattion would I consider this to be a workplace accident. And I would want to know why the unions consider it to be work related and why they are encouraging a claim. Perhaps it would be everyones interests if the union promoted safety to a greater degree rather than trying to "cash in" on accidents.
Holmezy
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
Even if the claim is pursued against the company the employer can then counter claim against the other driver.
As the roads and entrance ways are subject to Planning consents the layout is unlikely to be a significant issue.
In general even if the driver was ariving from a company site the injury is not strictly a work injury but is an RTA dealt with by the police, and may be reportable to the HSE. Other issues my intrude but these will still not supervene the other drivers guilt, provided of course the IP's car was in good order and he had not been drinking and over the limit!!
Bob
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Posted By Peter Longworth
Good afternoon Notso
I can't see why you are worried about this. The union rep can advise what he likes, but the truth is that in order to make a successful claim the IP would have to prove your company was negligent in some way that contributed to the accident. If you weren't negligent you have nothing to worry about.
As for unions only existing to facilitate claims, the same applies. If you are not negligent you have nothing to worry about.
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Posted By Bob Shillabeer
Homezy is spot on - 1. The site of the RTA was not controlled by the employer therefore no jurisdiction. 2. The employee was in control of the vehicle, his choice, again no employer liability, 3. The employee was not on company property, what if he stepped outside his home gate and fell over, is that the employer's responsibility, NO. 4. Who caused the accident, was this person employed by the company NO, nothing to do with the company no liability. If this person was employed but stil on the highway still NO.
The Union may still wish to represent the employee in chasing a claim but it's against the driver of the other vehicle not the company. If it happened on commpany property, might, just might, be different.
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Posted By Kevin Kelly
Would agree with above re the motives of the union. Is it just me or are unions only getting involved in nothing that is constructive. How can an employer be responsible for all their employees who are in transit on public highways when they are not actually working?
The employer has no say on the standard of the car, the manner in which it is being driven, the road conditions of the road etc so how can a union rep decide that the company has a case to answer?
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Posted By Peter Longworth
He doesn't decide, the courts do that.
As to your first question, it's not just you,
BB thinks so too.
I'll repeat what I said earlier, if you're not negligent you have nothing to worry about, and more importantly neither do your employees.
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Posted By Bill Parkinson
I have had to deal with similar incidents and in all the cases the outcome has been the same. The person was not officially at work and therefore not work related.
The incident itself was a road traffic accident which is dealt with by different legislation and would not be reportable under RIDDOR if the person was off work etc.
I have also had to deal with a person who was knocked down when crossing the car park and even this was treated as a RTA and not work related.
Regards
Bill
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Posted By Keith Archer.
"Employee works for a couple of hours then goes home due to injury".
Were you asked to put the accident in your accident book? if you are then refuse it is not work related.
Make sure that you are not accused of contributing to the injury by allowing the employee to work "the couple of hours" (it was ok until I picked up that box)
it is surprising how some people can be influenced to suddenly have an injury aggravated by a work activity.
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Posted By John D Crosby
This is not uncommon these days- I have had a similar situation develop. If my memory serves me correctly this has something to do with the old Sickness Benefit system whereby you were able to get extra payment if your sickness was because of an industrial injury and the system did include travelling to work. The payment was paid by the State and had nothing to do with civil claims against an employer although a lot of people thought it was. The system is no longer in operation but surely there is another old 'un' out there who remembers this.
John C
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Posted By Robert K Lewis
John
And it lasted for 13 weeks in my young days.
Bob
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Posted By Fred Pratley
Car on Public road hit by another car while turning into works car park - RTA with no liability on the company.
However, presuming employee takes sick time as a result does he get sick pay?
If the union is giving you this kind of grief and has an aggressive attitude, you could hint that the company might not be paying any sick pay - after all, the employee will be claiming all lost wages and overtime as part of his insurance claim against the other driver - so why should the company subsidise him?
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Posted By John Murgatroyd
What sick pay ?
SSP ?
That's repaid by the gov.
And it doesn't matter if you refuse to pay it, it is also claimable directly from the benefits agency (or DoWP..whatever)
As for the "accident book"....so many employers (including mine) fail to realise that the employee can enter the details, whether they like it or not...the employer can put their version in section 3 if they want.... As for unions and "is that all they can do"......... they do it very well, thankyou. They could do more for safety, but as any union rep can tell you.....they get a lot of disinterest and obstruction from employers ***AND*** from "professional" H&S practitioners. In FACT, many employers (and it's about 99.99% of small employers) wilfully break H&S regulations at every opportunity. Hence the increase in industrial disease.. But not to worry, as well as the unions representing their members there is also the no-win-no-fee brigade. As for this particular case....seems to be an rta...but it could be interesting if sickpay is witheld...keep us informed, won't you ? (maybe I'd better not mention [again] the £41,000.00 award because the [pretty dumb] H&S consultancy messed-up the H&S policy......oh well)
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Posted By Edward Shyer
John,
You are correct SSP is paid by the government and if a claim of over £2500 is paid then any SSP or indeed any benefit's are recovered by the compensation recovery unit (established by the previous government in the early nineties).
You are also correct the "employee" can in fact anyone can place an entry into the accident book but it is their choice. The Employer has a duty to make this B1510 available to employees but does not have to place an entry in on demand.
Again I would fully agree with you that that unions are not only experts in this field. As one person asked about industrial injury benefit that was payable a few years by the old DHSS ( or as a good lad used to call it the pancrac)I do indeed remember those times. I also remember the times of the CLOSED shop and if you were unskilled (in my day this was called a working class man) trying to to get a job that paid the best money to feed and give your family a decent living then you were refused the job because you were in the wrong union. It did not matter weather you were in UCATT, TGWU, but if a labouring job was advertised in a printing works for instance and you were not a member of SOGAT(even as far back as 75)you did not get the job. Yes I would certainly agree that unions a more that able to hold their own. Even allegedly to the point of being set up by the same previous government (UDM)
As with regards to H&S and the unions I have over the years seen where the shop steward has sanctioned the use of many an unsafe practice with blind eyes being turned especially on BULL week. Luckily things have changed since them days.
With regards to (pretty dumb)consultancies this may be the case in a minority of case. It would be interesting as an aside issue to see how many H&S professional have ended up doing this job who have come from a trade union background.
To the original of this thread RTA not an industrial injury
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Posted By Ross Hunter
Has any body read the article in this months SHP? The Burdon of Liability. In it the author discusses a number of senarios and possible defences regarding liability issues associated with civil claims. The one that springs to mind and I think may cover this issue is as follows.
'It is possible to use causation as a defence where the employee's injury is totally unrelated to his work activity.'
I would suggest that if the above is proved, which in this case may not be a difficult task, then it would not be an 'Industrial Injury', therefore no claim.
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Posted By John Murgatroyd
Thankfully, things have changed with unions. They are now amalgamating to form larger unions (there are therefore less of them, but larger !) and are also amalgamating internationally. So, you can be a member of several unions, and just one !
Compensation: Think on this. If it is a NWNF solicitor handling the case, then they don't bother if there is a less than 50% chance of a fee out of it. In any case, the guy has a perfect right to claim sick pay if he is sick or injured. Where does it say that sick pay is only paid if the sickness or injury happened at work ?
I'll reiterate this, the person INJURED either makes the entry or says what goes into it or agrees the entry, the employer has no right to alter it or refuse to let the injured person make the entry.
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Posted By Glyn Atkinson
Did the injured party seek medical advice upon reaching work premises and before starting work?
Did his management team know that he had suffered an injury prior to getting to his work place that day?
Did he personally rate himself fit to start work doing his normal job?
Was he in a fit state to commence normal working after this incident?
Did any manager become involved to see if he required light duties or if he should refrain from attending work for the day period?
Does he get paid at his normal rate for the full shift time if he has started work then gone / been set home?
Being totally cynical, and without knowing the person or his personal circumstances - is the two hour attendance under sufferance an attempt to gain an industrial injury claim?
Normally - off site incident - not at work, it's an RTA - no claim !
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Posted By Seamus O Sullivan
Hi,
Not knowing any of the details, I would be slow to make any judgment. However it is not unknown for accident victims to suffer delayed shock.Initally the victim might feel fine. This may be why the injured party attempted to work.( s/he did suffer a whiplash injury)
This is perhaps where the legal people and the medical people can earn their money.
On the face of it , it seem the accident occured outside work, but one can never assume the legal people will come to the same conclusion.
The other driver was not an employee ( i presume)
Seamus
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Posted By Bryan Nott
Is the initial question asking whether this is an industrial injury for the purpose of industrial injury disablement benefits or for a claim against the employer?
The union may very well have advised the employee to seek a disablement pension if there is a long term disablement. This might have nothing to do with a 'civil claim'. The issue as to whether it was an accident at work then becomes very relevant and the employer can answer it without worrying about any potential liability.
The question is likely to be, was it an accident that occured as a result of the person's work. I suspect the likely answer is no because they had not made it onto the employer's premises. Had they got onto the car park and then the accident occurred I would feel the argument would probably go in the employee's favour. There's scope for all sorts of argument but my feeling is once someone is on the premises there is at least a presumption they are 'at work'.
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Posted By John Murgatroyd
Does it make any difference if the person "on the premises" was an employee or not ?
Even a visitor is entitled to expect the place to be organised and not a death-trap.
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Posted By darren booth
its is only a brief description of the incident, but i think that this could only be be employer negligence if there are other factors to consider e.g. stress, bullying, exessive hours worked etc, work related things that could have affected the injured parties abilities. from the facts given, it does look like an r.t.a, and not an industrial injury.
has your company carried out an investigation into the accident? maybe this will give you your answer.
regarding the claim, the way i would do it , as a rep, would be to simply pass on the claimants details to the union. they then appoint a solicitor, who will decide whether to pursue it.
if there is little chance of a win, they will not take the case.
there seems to be some anti union sentiment on here. being a hs rep is not an easy job, you get grief from all sides. i would expect a more positive attitude to our work from members of the safety profession.
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Posted By Peter Longworth
Darren
I couldn't agree more. I always thought that a health and safety professional should take an even handed approach and do his job without fear or favour. However the amount of union bashing on this thread makes me wonder if I am alone in thinking that.
As regards making a claim, this can only happen if an employee is injured following an accident. As you quite rightly point out, the trade unions employ very experienced solicitors who will assess whether a claim is viable or not. The fundamental point is no accident, no claim. Simple really. Put your efforts into reducing accidents and the claims will reduce accordingly. Bleating about unions doing their job doesn't help anybody.
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Posted By KB
You probably have most of the answers you require but I have a question was the employee in their own vehicle or a company vehicle? If a company vehicle then they are classed as at work.
I recently had the same scenario but in a private car park but employee was in a company vehicle so was classed as at work and we had to report under RIDDOR as the individual was both hospitalised and off work for more than three days.
The police did not want to investigate this as a road traffic accident as it was on private property.
Just thought I would add mt two penneth.
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