Posted By Ronofcam Hi all, Had a chat with a guy at work (another H&S chap, but different company). Contrary to the accepted wisdom, I've always calculated the AIR thus: Number of accidents/average number of employees. My company had 26 accidents last year (1 RIDDOR only), and the average number of staff employed was 152. This gives 0.17, or in other words, each member of staff was involved in an accident 0.17 times over the course of the year. Why is there a need to then multiply by an arbitary number? Let's say I multiply the 0.17 by 1,000. This gives a total of 170. 170 what? Bananas? Packets of gravy? I understand the need to do it for accident frequency rates, or you'd end up with a silly number (e.g. 26 accidents divided by 293,000 hours worked gives a tiny and almost meaningless number), so can someone explain the logic of it for AIR? My calculations work for me and my company, and I've resisted changing it to 'conform'. I just don't see the point, frankly. Cheers,

Posted By peter gotch 1 Ronofcam You are extremely unlikely to get any statistically significant trend in your company accident stats (especially RIDDOR reportables) for several decades however you monitor the stats (UNLESS processes encourage severe underreporting) I would be spending mor time on making a virtue on near miss reporting with a KPI that monitors an INCREASE!!! + other positive KPSs as discussed on other threads, including this week. Regards, Peter

Posted By jeffrey david smith to be truthful, the only reason you would multiply (usually by industry standard 100,000) is to be able to compare with other areas within your industry ie construction so Our company had ** per 100,000 last year, the industry standard is *** per 100,000 therefore we are below the industry standard. It really depends against what you are comparing. Good Luck