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#1 Posted : 10 August 2009 18:18:00(UTC)
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Posted By TDsafety Why is 17 weeks used to average out working time?
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#2 Posted : 10 August 2009 18:21:00(UTC)
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Posted By Phil Rose I am not sure 'why' other than to say it is because that is what the regs say, but the reference period is not the same for all sectors, and it can be extended by collective or workforce agreement
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#3 Posted : 10 August 2009 18:24:00(UTC)
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Posted By TDsafety Yes but why do the regs say 17 weeks. Somebody told me that 17 weeks is equal to 6 months. Clearly not in my line of thinking
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#4 Posted : 10 August 2009 18:35:00(UTC)
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Posted By martinw Partly so that for statistical purposes three sets of WTD measurements can be calcuated in a one year period. But as above, it can be 18 weeks, or in some 'exlusions' clauses it can be as much as 26 weeks.
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#5 Posted : 10 August 2009 19:28:00(UTC)
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Posted By Phil Rose It can be 52 weeks - i.e. a year, which is helpful where people work 'annualised' hours
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