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Could anyone give me an answer to my question with regard to an injury at work please. Two employees were working about 4mtrs apart and one of the employees for some reason got really frustrated with what they were doing and kicked a small wheeled trolly that was close to hand and it hit the other employee, who was across from him, on his shins and created some slight bruising . The employee that was hit by the trolley has gone off work and probably will not return for the next week. This was not an accident 'Arising out of or in connection with work’ so i cant see that it is a RIDDOR, and he was not instructed to perform the act so Vicarious Liability would not be, in my view, part of the equation. Could anyone agree or disagree with my decision and tell me why?
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Rank: Super forum user
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After being absent due to this incident for more than 3 days, then IMHO this is actually reportable.
Reason it actually occurred in connection with work.... the person who kicked the trolley was working the person who was unfortunate to walk past was in the course of his/her work?
A further follow up is management issues with the person who had such reason to kick the trolley also!
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Rank: Super forum user
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The injury happened whilst he was at work so it is reportable if it reaches the designated times. The fact that it was caused by another employees stupidity is imaterial it happened at work and is therefore reportable. RIDDOR does not ask for cause simply the fact the accident has happened. Report it if he is off for more than 3 days.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Please find an extract from regulation 2, (1)(a) from RIDDOR95 below;
(1) In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires -
“accident” includes
(a) an act of non-consensual physical violence done to a person at work
In my mind that makes it reportable as an over 3 day.
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Rank: Super forum user
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bob shillabeer wrote:The injury happened whilst he was at work so it is reportable if it reaches the designated times. The fact that it was caused by another employees stupidity is imaterial it happened at work and is therefore reportable. RIDDOR does not ask for cause simply the fact the accident has happened. Report it if he is off for more than 3 days.
Absolutely agree, employee's acts or ommissions are included in H&S regs etc.
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Rank: Super forum user
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I agree sound reportable to me , and I also think Vicarious Liability apples - the small wheeled trolley was presumably provided by the company, the fact that it was not used in the way described is surly what Vicarious Liability is all about?
Brian
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Rank: Super forum user
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"Got really frustrated with what they were doing" (ie the work) and kicked the work equipment - this tells you that the injury arose out of work and wasn't merely something that occurred during working hours (which on its own is not enough).
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Rank: Forum user
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I agree, definitely reportable, and vicarious liability for the employer. An accident has happened to a third party through the fault of the employers employee. The employee who kicked the trolley has an attitude problem and that should be dealt with under disciplinary procedures by the employer.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Has it been confirmed that he is off work through this injury?, after all it is described as minor bruising.
Steve
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Rank: Super forum user
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I think it's interesting that right from the start, we are discussing a statutory requirement to make a report under RIDDOR, and the question of vicarious liability in the same breath!
On the first count, whether to report or not, I suggest, yes, it is reportable.
On the essentially unrelated issue of vicarious liability, of course, there is case law that suggests that an employer would not be held vicariously liable for the 'frolic' of an employee. I suggest that if there were a claim pursued for damages, that there is a very reasonable chance that the employer would not be held vicariously liable in the circumstances described.
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Rank: Super forum user
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From the perspective of the injured party, the injury arose out of or in connection with work.
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Rank: Super forum user
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quote=Phil Rose] there is a very reasonable chance that the employer would not be held vicariously liable in the circumstances described.
Hang on, I haven't read the whole post but does anyone understand vicarious liability?
In my mind this only applies if I injure a third party whilst carrying out my employers biding. If I slip up then my employer is just liable :)
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Rank: Guest
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teh_boy wrote:
Hang on, I haven't read the whole post but does anyone understand vicarious liability?
Well, Phil seems to, for one.
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Rank: Super forum user
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I am pretty sure that vicarious liability applies only when a 3rd party is involved - in this situation, where 2 employees are involved, the employer is just plain "liable".
If the injured person was eg a contractor, then vicarious liability applies. In both cases of course, the employer is liable...........
BUT WAIT!! WAS THIS GOING OFF "ON A FROLIC OF HIS OWN"?? - in which case, the employer would not be liable, as they are not for assault by employees.......................!!
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Rank: Forum user
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The employer will be liable to some degree for failing to provide a safe place of work, which includes safe colleagues. The injury is definitely reportable under RIDDOR and if I were you I would be looking to take action towards the employee who inflicted injury to the other, possibly leading to dismissal.
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"the employees for some reason got really frustrated with what they were doing and kicked a small wheeled trolly that was close to hand and it hit the other employee".
I notice two things from this:
1) employees
2) they
So more than one employee got frustrated?
What caused the frustration?
Was there a particular issue with the work or how they were havingto perform it? Had they raised it with the employer to try to things changed? Were they taken seriously? Was there action taken to help?
These are all questions that need to be taken into connsideration prior to making judgements.
If there was an issue that was not taken seriously etc., by the employer, then there is no question about a liability for the employer.
Was the employee off due to the accident or was it minor? Were they scheduled to take a holiday and was the absence therefore completely separate from the accident?
I would want more information on this to allow a balanced judgment to be made.
Son of Skywalker
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Rank: Super forum user
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barnaby wrote:teh_boy wrote:
Hang on, I haven't read the whole post but does anyone understand vicarious liability?
Well, Phil seems to, for one.
I need to hold up my hands here: I was replying to something I had read in another thread, and stand corrected!
My apologies *hangs head in shame*
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Rank: Super forum user
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teh_boy, I am not sure if that was a 'pop' at me, and I wonder what in my post suggested that I didn't understand vicarious liability? If anything, I would have thought that my post demonstrated that I did! So, yes I think I do have a reasonable understanding of the 'doctrine' of VL which is reasonably straightforward and is reasonably well established in case law, although it is relatively clear that not everyone does understand it. I was and am still unclear what the reporting requirement of RIDDOR had to do with whether the employer was likely to be held vicariously liable for the action of the employee in this particular case.
VL is not limited to situations involving 'third parties' (I think you mean by this, an employee injuring someone else other than another employee of the same employer). VL can apply to a situation where one employee has inured another employee (of the same employer), try Lister/Romford. In the example used, I suggest it was a 'frolic' and that there may not have been sufficient connection between the employer and the action of the employee, for the employer to have been found VL, but a court may decide otherwise.
Similarly, while employers are not normally likely to be held VL for assaults carried out by employees on others (there is case law on that as well), there are exceptions, where an employer may be held to be VL for an 'assualt' by an employee, including the actions of Police officers, bailiffs etc.
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Pikeman wrote:I am pretty sure that vicarious liability applies only when a 3rd party is involved - in this situation, where 2 employees are involved, the employer is just plain "liable".
...........
I believe that was the case under 'the doctrine of common employment', but this was abolished by the Law Reform (Personal Injuries) Act 1948. As a result employers became liable for the negligence of their 'servants' to one another in the same way as they are liable for their negligence to the world at large.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Phil is quite right, this is Reportable and VL has nothing to do with that question. I sometimes wonder why Torts, VL, Volenti non fit Injuria etc are included in the NEBOSH syllabus. These issue only seem to confuse so many of us and in practise are of very little use to a practioner. On the other hand if we understand it all properly, we can be the source of knowledge at work if these issues arise in a claim.
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redken wrote: - - - I sometimes wonder why Torts, VL, Volenti non fit Injuria etc are included in the NEBOSH syllabus. These issue only seem to confuse so many of us and in practise are of very little use to a practioner.
If everything that seems to confuse h&s practitioners was excluded from the sylabus I'm not sure it would be a very long sylabus.
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Rank: Super forum user
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son of skywalker Was there a particular issue with the work or how they were havingto perform it? Had they raised it with the employer to try to things changed? Were they taken seriously? Was there action taken to help? son of Skywalker[/quote wrote: Roberts22349 wrote: one of the employees for some reason got really frustrated with what they were doing
Is there a potential stress issue here?
Juan Carlos Arias wrote:The employer will be liable to some degree for failing to provide a safe place of work, which includes safe colleagues. The injury is definitely reportable under RIDDOR and if I were you I would be looking to take action towards the employee who inflicted injury to the other, possibly leading to dismissal.
This seems a bit harsh to me Juan Carlos, are you attempting to try and incite a claim?
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I don't think is harsh at all. At the end of the day you have a duty to protect your employees even from their colleagues. This to me, depending on the ins and outs of the investigation ( which I don't know), would be as bad as fooling around, and that in my book should not be tolerated. It is not inciting a claim, however, if one did come through, it would not look too good if you turn a blind eye to misbehaviour of this type.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Juan Carlos Arias wrote:I don't think is harsh at all. At the end of the day you have a duty to protect your employees even from their colleagues. This to me, depending on the ins and outs of the investigation ( which I don't know), would be as bad as fooling around, and that in my book should not be tolerated. It is not inciting a claim, however, if one did come through, it would not look too good if you turn a blind eye to misbehaviour of this type.
I take your point Juan Carlos but it may not have been a case of fooling around, it may have been a reaction to a stressful situation. I would carry out a full and thorough investigation looking at all the issues including the immediate and root causes, particularly what may have triggered the reaction of the 'offender'.
What I certainly not be doing would be advising others to take legal action against another employee that would lead to his potential dismissal. In my book that is not the role of the safety professional. It does us a disservice and helps to perpetuate the claims culture.
Taking your reasoning a step further, would you also advocate taking similar action against the supervisor for failing to supervise, or manager for failing to manage?
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quote=Decimomal]I take your point Juan Carlos but it may not have been a case of fooling around, it may have been a reaction to a stressful situation. I would carry out a full and thorough investigation looking at all the issues including the immediate and root causes, particularly what may have triggered the reaction of the 'offender'
I agree with this. Note that when I say "take action" I'm not referring to "legal action" but disciplinary action. If it turns out that the employee had genuine reason to loose his temper, I would not look at dismissal but still at least issue him with a reminder. I don't think there's nothing to justify fully kicking things around in the workplace putting others at risk. Now if the investigations brings up other findings, then, it could amount to gross misconduct. I don't think this perpetuates a claim culture in any shape or form?
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I have re-read your original post Juan Carlos and stand corrected. I am guilty of the crime of assuming and apologise. It appears we are on the same wavelength after all.
Ciao.
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quote=decimomal]I have re-read your original post Juan Carlos and stand corrected. I am guilty of the crime of assuming and apologise. It appears we are on the same wavelength after all.
Ciao.
nothing to apologise for. didn't take it in a bad way either :)
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decimomal wrote:I have re-read your original post Juan Carlos and stand corrected. I am guilty of the crime of assuming and apologise. It appears we are on the same wavelength after all.
Ciao.
It must be the snow :) At least it's not just me getting stuff wrong.
Is it the weekend yet?
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