Rank: Forum user
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If someone as an accident at work that wasnt at the time RIDDOR reportable and then continues working for 2 weeks after the accident without any time off, but after the two week period of working decides to have time off because of the accident, is it reportable if they now have over 7 days off.
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Rank: Super forum user
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sounds like it wasn't an accident in the first place....wee bit more detail required :)
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Rank: Super forum user
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No. The causal chain has been broken. There is no way of proving this is due to the accident. There is no need for further detail, it is not a RIDDOR.
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Rank: Super forum user
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Originally Posted by: WatsonD No. The causal chain has been broken. There is no way of proving this is due to the accident. There is no need for further detail, it is not a RIDDOR.
I agree - no chain of causality here therefore not RIDDOR
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